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Joined: February 12, 2004  (email not validated)
Comments posted: 86
Votes received: 59

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Questions Submitted

Head shot

October 19, 2007


October 11, 2007

Dick & Bob

July 26, 2007


June 19, 2005


January 30, 2005

B4 Dickens

January 14, 2005

Credit card

January 5, 2005


December 31, 2004


December 26, 2004


December 12, 2004


December 11, 2004


December 11, 2004


December 6, 2004


November 1, 2004


October 1, 2004


October 1, 2004


August 26, 2004


July 29, 2004

Looking for a word

July 29, 2004


July 23, 2004


July 12, 2004

At or in

July 8, 2004

Lacking Smell

July 2, 2004


July 2, 2004


June 22, 2004


June 21, 2004

F word

June 18, 2004

...t you

June 18, 2004

P & K

June 15, 2004


June 13, 2004

Am I L-deaf?

June 9, 2004


June 1, 2004

ta-ta & ho-ho

May 15, 2004

Oral vs. Aural

May 11, 2004


May 10, 2004


May 9, 2004


May 9, 2004

Isn’t it odd?

May 6, 2004


April 29, 2004


April 28, 2004

English schools

April 26, 2004

Following the Joe

April 23, 2004

Who’s this Joe?

April 19, 2004


April 19, 2004


April 14, 2004


April 14, 2004


March 25, 2004


March 3, 2004


February 18, 2004


February 17, 2004

Any reference?

February 17, 2004

Weird name

February 16, 2004

Pronounciation of TH+S

February 16, 2004

Gerund and Present Participle

February 12, 2004


February 10, 2004

Recent Comments

Dyske, couldn't the original expression as well be "[Hope you] don't mind if I do."

goossun July 15, 2007, 11:31am

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Is it a new trend to eliminate punctuation, like what Dave suggests? For example BBC even has it like "2300" instead of 23:00 to indicate time. Was not it suppose to be helping readers to punctuate texts?

goossun July 2, 2007, 2:01am

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Language evolves, you know? I think one way of explaining/understanding the change in this case is to figure out what different sense would the same kids make when they use "by accident", if at all. Do they reject the "correct form?" Are they ignorant of the "correct" idiom? I think new usages do not necessary eliminate the old idioms but just add to the richness of language when accepted largely.

goossun July 2, 2007, 1:40am

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I just think (but not 253% sure) that the term Heather is looking for is infix and not tmesis.
Tmesis: i.e. "any more" (in oppose to anymore; without space) basically means to "cut" parts of a compound word. Another example is a term of Theater Anthropology: "in tension"
Whereas infix is to add another part in between the parts of compound word i.e. Anglo-Saxon (the O being the infix)
Am I right?

goossun December 1, 2006, 3:57pm

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As xylo said it is called inversion and is rooted in Germanic languages. In today’s English it is used as an emphasis when one wants to be formal. In Danish for instance it is very common and you’d hear it a zillion times a day

goossun December 1, 2006, 3:37pm

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I think the morning whisky had left a great "impact" on the dude the day he uttered that utter nonsense.
I just want to say that I believe one great advantage of English language is that almost always one can use a noun as a verb and vise versa. (I know that some would have objections.) But what could be cooler than—just as a familiar example—QT saying “don’t fuckin’ Jimmie me man!” I wonder if the professor would accept Jimmie as a noun!

goossun December 1, 2006, 3:20pm

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Thanks Sarah, I did not know the other meaning of "yank." So it apparently pans with "yank" and "Yank." I'm sure of that because I checked the subtitle for “hard of hearing” and Yank was capitalized.
But I think the word "utility" refers to something more than being handy or any direct sense of the word. I guess it's some organization or maybe a brand or something having to do with Germans I suppose or something to that extent. I’m just guessing.

goossun June 19, 2005, 3:07am

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margaret, that was quite fun!

goossun May 11, 2005, 2:17am

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what is this video game? And how new? I heared this V-card last September.

goossun May 10, 2005, 12:21pm

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goossun May 2, 2005, 1:10pm

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Although Sean has made some sense, but I think making scenario to describe grammatical point is almost misleading. I prefer the comprehensive definitions.
I think, too, all three are right, depending on what the speaker means.
However, a Past Perfect tense [had had] refers to a verb that took place in the past and was finished [itself and/or its influence] BEFORE another past tens (in whatever form) either in the same sentence or in the whole context. Draw a line; mark a pint on it and call it Present; mark another point and call it Past Perfect. Mark a third point between these to marks. Whatever action (in a verbal sense) beginning from the second mark and ending before the 3rd mark could be conjugated as Pas Perfect IF you are ALSO mentioning the time between the 1st and the 3rd mark in the same sentence or the same context.
The exception is the indirect quotation that will change the tense one step back towards the past. i.e. “he has done it.” Would be quoted as “She said, he had done it.”

Native speakers who know grammar, help!

goossun May 2, 2005, 1:08pm

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Dear Sarah
Yes it was "race" but I wasn't sure what I heard was race or raise. Speedwell suggested that it is more likely to be raise.
You seem to be a good slang source! Keep in touch :-)

goossun May 2, 2005, 12:37pm

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So what does "Go raise some V-cards" mean then?

goossun April 30, 2005, 3:13pm

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Aima Akhazemea, you gotta read Barba's books then. And see some of the videos fron Odin Teatret.

goossun April 13, 2005, 12:19pm

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I dunno about that, but Marx says, "Quantity effects quality!" I think when the Communism gets as soupy as goulash then it goes as awry as it went. Hence Goulash Communism! ;-)

goossun March 23, 2005, 5:12am

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"In the beginning was dictionary and dictionary was God!"

goossun March 23, 2005, 5:01am

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OK! :-)

goossun February 12, 2005, 10:08am

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Speed, if beforehandedly isn't wrong, I'm happy with it.
as to the ignorance stuff, I wouldn't take statements like lysdexia's serious. Because s/he is either an English speaker so that THINKS s/he knows the language because s/he talks to her/his pet in that language or just have been told a "rule" in an English school and is convinced and happy with it for the rest of her/his life.
So I don't bother to show examples that contradicts that "rule."

goossun January 31, 2005, 5:23am

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You should be careful that "poet Rilke" and "the poet, Rilke" (note the comma) are not grammatically the same.

goossun January 18, 2005, 10:30am

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But we are getting far from the subjevt here. My post was about deliberate alternative spelling in purpose. Of course it is wrong spelling to write 2 instead of to. because they are two different things. But it is also cool sometimes to write like this. I just wonted to know how far back we can trace this.

goossun January 18, 2005, 10:23am

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