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Why are the music instruments in the definite form when they are “being played” in the sentences? “I play THE guitar”

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Jun-Dai you did not get the point mate.

goossun June 23, 2004 @ 8:52PM

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It may be useful to compare the common practice in certain Romance languages, where the article is used for pretty nearly all nouns. I've found French particularly illustrative, in which you may have la/le or un/une, corresponding respectively to "the" and "a" in English. One may think of a case like French as being "regular," following a standard usage rule, while the same case in English might be thought of as "irregular."

Maybe someone much more familiar with the use of the article in French, Italian, or Spanish could provide us with some typical examples.

speedwell2 June 24, 2004 @ 8:17AM

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No article is used in that case. "I play guitar", that's it. Get an English grammar book, something like "A Practical English Grammar" or "Three words" by Claire, or something similar.

noname July 28, 2004 @ 6:11AM

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So, passing by, I suppose that in thirty years of piano study, including three years of formal university and ten years of giving lessons, I haven't managed to figure out yet that "I play piano," as opposed to "I play THE piano."

Take your grammar book and go sit on a tack...

speedwell2 July 28, 2004 @ 1:58PM

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