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Latest Posts : Usage
Andrew Cuomo, in his popular COVID press conferences, often uses the words “dose” and “dosage” interchangeably (at least so it seems). Here is an example:
“We have the operational capacity to do over 100,000 doses a day — we just need the dosages.”
Here is another:
“To date, New York has administered 2.5 million dosages, with about 10% of New Yorkers receiving their first dose. Ninety-two percent of dosages allocated to the state to date have been used.”
I thought “dosage” refers to the amount in a dose, like x milligrams. A single dosage can have multiple milligrams, so, when you pluralize “dosage,” what exactly are you referring to, if not the number of doses?
I recently ran across the working word in a document that was: “re-substantial.”
Even if it were only listed as "resubstantial," my question is this: Is this even a real word? If it is, what on earth does it actually mean?
Your help is greatly needed.
Is it grammatically ok to use the adjective “respective” with a singular noun ?
Many dictionaries such as Longman define the term “respective” as follows.
used before a plural noun to refer to the different things that belong to each separate person or thing mentioned.
But, I often see “respective” used with a singular noun as follows (cited from an Internet site).
Each of the Division’s three regional offices - in Chicago, New York, and San Francisco - handles criminal matters arising in its respective area and serves as the Division’s liaison with U.S. attorneys, state attorneys general, and other regional law enforcement agencies.
I wonder if the above usage is now common, though it is gramatically incorrect.
In our office we are advocates for our client and in representing what we do with a client we have times that we advocate for our clients. I am under the impression that you can advocate for your client to do something with them and several of my co workers disagree stating that you can only advocate for them to receive something with another provider or resource. Who is corrent? examples:
Can you correctly say:
“the care support provider provided advocacy in encouraging the client to participate in therapy” or the “Care manager advocated with the client to participate in therapy weekly.”
Can we advocate for a client to do something that they are recommended to do. Using advocated in the place of “encouraged”
office question responses appreciated.
In some recent fiction books written by American authors, I have seen the word “acclimated” as in “...she took a day to become acclimated to her new area.”
Shouldn’t this word be “acclimatised” or is this a case of American’s using one word and New Zealanders using another, both for the same purpose?
I’m reviewing a New Zealand scientific report which uses the word ‘equivalency’. This sounds to me like an Americanisation of the word ‘equivalence’, both being nouns but with the redundancy of an additional syllable in ‘equivalency’.
As we use British English (despite word processing software trying to force American English upon us) I’m inclined to use ‘equivalence’. What do you think?
It grates every time I hear a local radio traffic reporter say “there is an accident just prior to the Erindale Rd turn-off.”
I believe I’m right in thinking the word ‘prior’ is more correctly used in a time context, meaning earlier than or sooner than.
Thoughts?
In American Grammar specifically, there is a somewhat new trend of referring to a singular collective as a plural noun. For example, “The band are playing at the Hall tonight.” To which I want to reply “It are?” While the British and Canadians have never understood the concept of singular collectives such as large companies or the aforementioned musical groups known by a name such as Aerosmith or Saint Motel, but why is this becoming popular in America where singular collectives have been referred to, until recently, as a singular entity? It’s on the radio, it’s on TV commercials and even in print. Are singular collectives now plural?
Hi everyone, I’ve got an interesting question from my student:
Trump’s “ask the gays” statement:
- what exactly is wrong with it grammatically?
Thanks!
I would like to know if it is correct to use the adjective “key” predicatively. I was taught that this word is like the adjective “main,” which can only be used in the attributive position. I’ve seen sentences like “This is key to the success of the plan,” but I remember typing something similar and the word processor marked it immediately as wrong. I think both “key” and “main” are special, (irregular, if you want) adjectives (in fact, they have no comparative forms) and feel they should be treated accordingly. I’ve never seen something like “This book is main in our course.” We will normally say “This is the main book in our course.” Thank you for your help!
Latest Comments
Sells or sold?
- prabhu0704
- April 16, 2025, 5:24pm
If you're changing the sentence to Simple Past Tense, "sells" should become "sold." So it would be: "I found a pet store that sold ferrets." Both the main verb and the relative clause should reflect the past tense for consistency. checkout Mern stack course
On Tomorrow
- LB
- April 12, 2025, 2:21pm
I googled this same question and found this convo, so figured I’d add my two cents. I too moved from the DC to Texas and it is a very common saying in black churches down here. I hadn’t heard it before in 40 years of living in DC. They use it so much down here, and after 4 years of hearing it, I had to look it up, as it had me wondering if I wasn’t aware of another correct usage :-)
“my” vs. “mine” in multiple owner possessive
- ammu
- April 10, 2025, 8:15am
goood information given .https://dataanalyticsmasters.in/
“my” vs. “mine” in multiple owner possessive
- ammu
- April 10, 2025, 8:14am
good information giveb
“my” vs. “mine” in multiple owner possessive
- ammu
- April 10, 2025, 8:14am
good information given to others.
“my” vs. “mine” in multiple owner possessive
- Brolly Academy
- April 9, 2025, 6:48am
"Mine" is a possessive pronoun that stands alone (e.g., This book is mine), and it wouldn’t be used before a noun like “child.”
So, “my and Gregg’s child”—that’s the grammatically correct form.
“my” vs. “mine” in multiple owner possessive
- Brolly Academy
- April 9, 2025, 6:47am
"Mine" is a possessive pronoun that stands alone (e.g., This book is mine), and it wouldn’t be used before a noun like “child.”
So, “my and Gregg’s child”—that’s the grammatically correct form.
I will go home.
- keithsalinas
- February 28, 2025, 2:15pm
Your analysis of home as an adverbial modifier rather than a direct object is spot on. In the sentence "I will go home," home functions as an adverb of place, modifying the intransitive verb go. This contrasts with noun phrases like the beach, which require a preposition (e.g., go to the beach).
Interestingly, home belongs to a special category of place-related words that can function adverbially without to, similar to abroad, downtown, or overseas. This pattern has historical roots in Old and Middle English, where certain location words developed an adverbial sense. That’s why we say "go home" but "go to the park"—not due to simple elision of to, but because home inherently carries an adverbial function.
“by the time”
- taleshka
- February 12, 2025, 12:54pm
If I look at this sentence: "By the time he arrived, the lesson had finished". I wonder if it would be enough just to say "the lesson finished", as the time expression of "by the time" seems to clearly indicate what happened first. Am I right or is it 100% necessary to use Past Perfect with the expression?
Sells or sold?
If you're changing the sentence to Simple Past Tense, "sells" should become "sold." So it would be: "I found a pet store that sold ferrets." Both the main verb and the relative clause should reflect the past tense for consistency. check out MERN stack course in Hyderabad