Proofreading Service - Pain in the English
Proofreading Service - Pain in the English

Your Pain Is Our Pleasure

24-Hour Proofreading Service—We proofread your Google Docs or Microsoft Word files. We hate grammatical errors with a passion. Learn More

Proofreading Service - Pain in the English
Proofreading Service - Pain in the English

Your Pain Is Our Pleasure

24-Hour Proofreading Service—We proofread your Google Docs or Microsoft Word files. We hate grammatical errors with a passion. Learn More

The use of SO in "the same manner or to the same extent as aforementioned; also"

so - Wiktionary gives these quotations:

“I can count backwards from one hundred.” “So can I.”

‘There’re another two.’ ‘So there are.’

Why is the first one inverted and the second one not? I read it somewhere that it is because the answer of the second quotation confirms the first sentence (aforementioned stuff), so it is not allowed to invert. First, I can’t find another source that corraborates this reasoning. Second, why is it not allowed to invert? There must be a specific reason for this subject–auxiliary inversion.

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The word "so" is used in different senses in your examples. In the first, it is an anaphor relating the second speaker to the first. This usage requires inversion. In the second example, "so" is used to indicate agreement in the sense of "thus."

user111489 Jun-26-2022

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