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Is there not a redundancy in the use of “got” with “have”?
Why say “I have got” or “I’ve got” when “I have” conveys the exact meaning?
The same would be true of its use in the second or third person.
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Another example of where phrase/context/meaning may be at odds is "How are you?". This is often more politeness rather than a real enquiry. Answering with anything other than "fine" or "good" may not be what is sought. Likewise, the waitress, the receptionist, the yoga teacher may greet you with a "friendly" intonation, and a smile. It does not mean they would welcome a date. In fact their real attitude beneath the "professional" overly may be hard to determine.
Intonation conveys attitude, part of the meta-data of speech; but it is more difficult to research; and hard to teach to English learners whose native intontion patterns may be quite different. Try watching Vladimir Putin, or Ban Ki Moon; the smile/non-smile and intonations convey perhaps the wrong message to native English speakers
jayles the unwoven
On usage, the Cambridge Grammar of English (p883) states:The present tense form of have with got used for possession is more than twice as frequent in spoken BrE as in AmE:•I've got one sister and one brother. (BrE)•I have a cousin who never married. (AmE)On formality, Swan in Practical English Usage (p230) states:Got forms are especially common in an informal style. ... In very informal American speech, people may drop 've before got. I('ve) got a problem.
Although the addition of "got" may not follow the strictest syntax rules I believe it's use can be justified here because it serves as an intensifier that emphasizes the need to act is greater than the use of "have" alone connotes.Also, when the contraction "I've" is used then the addition of "got" improves the word structure sonically by preserving the normal rhythm of a sentence because the contraction works as a single word that serves as the noun, or rather, pronoun of the sentence and leaves a need for another verb.
Use of the word "got" in written English is not wrong.It is just a sign of the poorly educated.As soon as I read the word "got" or "get" in a document, I know immediately the sort of person I am dealing with.
What sentence would you rather use? I have the music in me. or I've got the music in me.
Neither, because I don't have the music in me.
The use of 'got' in a clause describing possession of something, such as 'I have got a pen', is superfluous. 'I have a pen' is just fine and indicates a brevity and clarity of thought that eludes many people. It may also indicate the influence of other languages. In French 'I have' is normal. I'm not sure how you would say 'I have got' in French. In fact in French you don't need the addition of 'got' to convey meaning or emphasis. French does seem to have a brevity that English has lost over the years. Around 60% of the English vocabulary originates from French. The Norman invasion of 1066 established French as the language of nobility and government, Latin was the language of the Church and Anglo-Saxon was for the commoners. I am an Englishman who has spent many years learning English so I feel I am entitled to criticise the language and especially those who use it badly. Perhaps it's the Germanic influence on English that has caused the gradual creep of 'got'. American English has certainly been a big influence on the language. A good example of how American English has been a positive influence eludes me at the moment but I do know they exist. The German language had a big influence on American English and in my opinion this comes through in expressions such as 'gotten'. It's a natural progression on the word got but it definitely grates on the British ear. The next time I watch a British movie of the 1930s or 1940s I will note the use of the word 'got', although the scripted dialogue may not be a good indicator of common usage. Grammar is the set of rules used to govern the use of spoken and written words. As with all rules, some are so rarely enforced that they wither on the vine of principles until extinct.
@gary Curiously, translating English into French usually makes the text at least fifteen percent longer:
jayles the uncle
I was taught that the "got," in "I've got," Is redundant and that " I have," is shorter and correct. I wonder how the hard-on-the-ears "I've got," became acceptable.
Goofy is wrong wrong wrong! First of all, "got" is the past tense of "to get." Second, juxtaposing "have" with "got" is bad English, even if the President does routingly. You would never answer "i got three dollars in my pocket" when asked how much money you have in your pocket. To say "have gotten" would be OK to convey that you have obtained something.
To all of those who think "have got to go" i have news for you, "gotta" is also bad English for adults. 11/20/2016.
Try "I have gotten...."
"I have gotten...."??
Ang ive got a Do you like this skateboardI havent got
I haven't got a clue!I got my first real six string, bought is at the five'n'dime, etc
If you can substitute 'got' with 'fetched' in your sentence, you are not using 'got' incorrectly.
@Jim - Sorry, dude - but where did you learn English?
"have (present tense) and got (past tense) do not belong next to each otherperiod"
That is sooooo incorrect.
Got is the 3rd form of get (get, got, got) in British English (aka world English)
'Have got' is actually the present perfect. It explains that I got something in the past and I still have it now.
End of - Mike drop!
Whenever they do the weather report on our local news, they always say we "got" 75 degrees, or we "got" a chance of rain, etc. It drives me up the wall. I think it just sounds more educated if they would say we "have" 75° or, we "have" rain coming, but that's just me.
How about ......"I hope you got to use the new car" (ie. "I hope you were allowed, permitted, had a chance, etc. to use the new car")? Is this acceptable grammar for the word got?Cheers, Bob.
I have been told by my British friends that "have got" means the same as "have gotten" which is considered a bit archaic there. But in that usage, they are the past perfect tense of "get".
I have means to possess( I have a dog )I got means to obtain( I got a dog )
It shold have been me?
We still have this redundancy today in the title of TV shows like "Britain's Got Talent".What's wrong with "Britain Has Talent"??
I’m still learning English and I was confused about this (I have vs I’ve got), but you all have different opinions. The questions is, can I use what I want? Are both correct?
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