One of our regular contributors, porsche, informed me that submitting a comment redirects you to Microsoft's website. Sorry about that. I keep track of the IP addresses of Spammers, and I send all the spammers to Microsoft's website. I recently moved the site to a different server, and the new server was returning the same IP address for everyone, and I ended up listing that IP address as a Spammer's. And, so the site considered everyone who commented as a Spammer. That's what happened.
But that's a long, boring, technical story, and what matters is that it's working fine now.
Thank you, porsche, for informing me of this problem. If anyone ever experience any problems like this on this site, please let me know.
A friend and I were having a discussion. The question asked was: what is the meaning of "I haven't known?" If it's even correct to say such a thing, which I suspect it is. I have a vague notion in older English usage of "I have known various women" and the negative of that, etc.
My friend was trying to ask me if it's possible with that statement to indicate that something was not known at a point in the past, but is known in the present.
The example:
Person A: Did you hear that Henry's car is broken?
Person B: I haven't known.
Does such a thing make sense? Why or why not?
Any help in the explanation of this would be appreciated.
I feel a bit offended when someone uses "resource" when referring to an individual. I find this use quite popular especially in the IT world. I know that American Heritage Dictionary defines, among others, a resource as:
[...] 2. resources The total means available to a company for increasing production or profit, including plant, labor, and raw material; assets.
3. Such means considered individually.
Is using "a resource" when referring to a person a bad style? Am I overreacting?
Is it appropriate to use a bulleted list in a question? Example:
Which type of flour would you use for the following items:
- bread
- cake
- cookies
Would you put a question mark at the end of each bullet? Would you only use a question mark at the end of the last bullet? Does the sentence need to be re-worded?
I have now found the phrase "pi the type" in two different books and have an idea of the meaning from the context. I would hope to learn more about the meaning and how it might have originated.
If our organization is called Help for Kids and we want to use the abbreviation HFK . . . is this correct usage in this sentence:
HFK' activities will start in the summer. With the K standing for Kids and Kids being plural, would this be correct use of the apostrophe at the end of HFK'?
I have a sentence with which I am struggling because I am not sure if I can use both a colon and semi-colon in it. However, I want everything in one sentence and cannot figure out what other punctuation I should use. Here's the sentence with names and details altered for anonymity.
"I am indebted to my family, especially my cousins: Jane Smith, my first teacher, without whom I would not be where I am today; and John Smith, my second teacher, who taught me more than he could have possibly imagined."
The colon is setting up a list and the semi-colon is separating items in the list that contain commas. Thoughts? Thanks in advance.
"so long as" means you're using it as a conditional?
Hence, "I was here as long as he was" (meaning we were there for the same length of time) and "I will love you so long as you don't cheat on me" (used for cause and effect situations)
It seems like I'm seeing, more and more, "believe" and similar words being used as nouns. At first I thought that it was an ESL issue; perhaps in other languages, the same word is used for both "believe" and "belief". But that explanation is looking less and less plausible. Is it just me, or are other people baffled by this? I don't understand how any native speaker can confuse the two words. Perhaps there are accents in which they are pronounced the same?
I'm editing a technical manual. The engineers I'm working with have regularly typed amounts which are under one as ".05 inches" or ".67 inches."
I've been of the opinion that this is to be typed ".05 inch" and ".67 inch," as the amounts are less than one, but I can't find anything to support either opinion.
I recently gave a class of six year olds a spelling test and saw that many of the children were spelling words with the correct letters but had used capital letters at the beginning, middle or end of a word. Is a word that has the correct letters but some of them are in capitals still considered to be correctly spelled?
The Boston Globe today ran an op-ed with the headline "Perpetrating the Autism Myth." But on the homepage, they referred to the op-ed with a link that said "TV shows perpetuate the autism myth." What is the difference between perpetrate and perpetuate as they are used here?
Do we use "shall have done" followed by second and third persons? I understand that if 'shall' comes after second and third persons, it is employed to indicate an obligation or a warning, etc. How about 'shall have done'?
for example: Company A shall have contributed 50 million dollars to the joint venture.
Is such usage correct? I feel somewhat strange. I understand that if we want to use future perfect tense, we will use "will have done" and in case of first persons "shall" could be adopted instead of "will". If we want to use subjunctive mood, we will use "should have done".
"[third persons] shall have done" looks neither future perfect nor an indication of obligations. I think it is wrong. Am I right?
My teacher says the sentence "It is urgent Molly prepare a revised copy of the file." is correct. I think it should be "It is urgent Molly prepares a revised copy of the file." Molly is singular so it needs a verb ending with a s. Can someone help me?