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Joined: December 16, 2008  (email not validated)
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Except, @goofy, in the example given, "me" is not an object of anything. "My writing" is the subject.

scyllacat August 13, 2011, 10:18am

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I was all set to say the same thing as mshades; they're more or less a series of stops along a line of judgment from more objective to more opinion-based/emotional.

I would except in the case of spoiled food, because, if you say "the milk is bad," you don't mean you don't like milk. but that's context-specific and idiomatic. You can just say "spoiled" and duck the issue.

scyllacat May 16, 2011, 10:12am

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Ah, so there is a reason it sounds wrong. Thanks Jayles.

scyllacat May 12, 2011, 12:08am

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oh, dear. The grammatical issue here MIGHT be splitting the infinitive "to proactively address" as "to boldly go (where no man has gone before)." Adverbs may go before or after, but if it were MY article, I would go with "to address the issues proactively" because "address proactively the issues," while technically correct, sounds like Yoda-speak to my ears.

scyllacat May 11, 2011, 6:36am

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Yeah, "I want it IN that way" would imply something other meaning, it's so alien to the American English idiom. (I refuse to speak for other English-speaking countries.)

scyllacat April 11, 2011, 9:40am

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Everyone's pretty much said it. In written stuff, it's redundant, somewhat informal, etc., and probably not recommended usage.

But in speech, it's ordinary, common idiom, nothing to worry about. Oddly, until now, I'd assumed it was Southern, cuz that's where I stay. :)

scyllacat April 3, 2011, 4:40pm

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yeah, the first sentences are wrong. The verb "do" is generally used for command or emphasis. The "recommend" and "do" are redundant to each other so, leave out "do."

Also, I do not know what that sentence is doing @joham. It does not make any sense to have that do/should construction, which is also awkward.

It's simply unnecessary.

scyllacat March 10, 2011, 3:36am

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Oh, that's annoying. I assumed I could give you a reason I thought the former sentence was more correct than the latter, but I cannot seem to articulate it. Yet, I'm sure the former is more correct. If I come up with anything, I'll let you know. I agree with Jayles that if the time framing in the beginning of the sentence were NOT there, it would NOT be necessary to use past perfect.

scyllacat March 10, 2011, 3:04am

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I prefer the first one. It's the one I was taught, and the second one looks noisy and hard to read, to me. I agree that there may not be a hard-and-fast rule on this, however.

scyllacat February 16, 2011, 12:45pm

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To lie only requires that the speaker not tell the truth. If the liar misleads, that involves what the person they are lying TO believes. They are only misled if they believe the lie. So, no, to lie does not NECESSARILY indicate misleading, but it indicates an intention to do so.

Was that pedantic enough for the forum? :)

scyllacat December 27, 2010, 4:19pm

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The answer to your question is "not a chance." The verb "to be" indicates identity and the nominative case "Who" is the right one to use.

scyllacat October 14, 2010, 8:39am

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Yes. It's not ever going to work for formal English. If you were writing it, and you meant it interrogatively, it would have a question mark, but you would not ever use it formally.

I don't know if there's a description that explains that. At first I thought it would be a sentence fragment. A question like the example you used would be written as "Do we need to add some more salt, perhaps?" The "perhaps" or "maybe" is a modifier, and it's just got nothing to do with the sentence structure as a question.

scyllacat August 12, 2010, 7:02am

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I believe "Yesses" is correct. It looks really funny, I know.

scyllacat July 21, 2010, 7:48am

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No, you could NOT both be correct. The pronouns have to match in declension, so "She" goes with "I" and "her " goes with "me." When the pronouns are the Subject of the clause, then "She," "He," "We," and/or "I traveled..." But when the pronouns are the Object of action, then "The bus ran over her/him/me/us."

scyllacat June 20, 2010, 7:40am

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I disagree. This is one of those cases where sound matters. There IS a pencil and three pens. There ARE three pens and a pencil.

scyllacat June 19, 2010, 8:20am

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Joke's on you. "Ignert" is a colloquial form, frequently pronounced that way to invoke the dialect, as goofy pointed out.

i.e. In an "ironic" twist, if you point out someone using/pronouncing "ignorant" wrong, you'll end up looking "ignert."

scyllacat May 19, 2010, 11:17pm

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It's a style issue, not a rule. There's nothing to argue ABOUT. In my job, the style book says "two spaces," but my style book is specific to my industry, so there's no erason for me to argue with anyone else's one space.

And I did use two spaces between my sentences.

scyllacat December 15, 2009, 6:53pm

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Possibly regional, given the division, but yes, in the South where I am, we "fetch" people all the time and think nothing of it. There may be areas where it's seen as, or used in, a belittling way, but it's not inherent in the definition.

Apparently, a lot of people, including myself, forget that their individual experiences may not reflect the entire truth of the matter.

scyllacat September 21, 2009, 8:34am

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Agreed. This is not a grammar issue. Grammatically, "waive" works fine. In fact, I prefer it to "release." I'm sorry to have published this comment without adding content. :)

scyllacat August 24, 2009, 12:09pm

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#1 is right--except I'm not sure if I should capitalize ""French fries" now. Great.

Only capitalize the proper name words: "German," "Labrador," "English," "Newfoundland," and "Dalmatian." Dog breed ITSELF is not a proper name, so "bulldog" and "English bulldog," "poodle" and "French poodle." Okay?

scyllacat August 24, 2009, 11:56am

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