Your Pain Is Our Pleasure
24-Hour Proofreading Service—We proofread your Google Docs or Microsoft Word files. We hate grammatical errors with passion. Learn More
Which statement is correct?
1. The patient has never undergone a colonoscopy.
2. The patient has never underwent a colonoscopy.
or fill in the name and email fields below:
The following sentences are both correct:
"The patient has never undergone a colostomy."
"The patient never underwent a colostomy."
One or the other may sound better to you in your context.
Think of a simpler example:
"I have never gone to see her new house."
"I never went to see her new house."
"To undergo" follows essentially the same format as "To go."
Yes, as Speedwell says, both "has never undergone" and "never underwent" are gramatically correct, but they are not semantically equal.
Speedwell is right that undergo has the same forms of go: go, went, gone. So...in the past you'd say underwent, but if you are suggesting that the patient will likely be undergoing a colostomy, even though they haven't in the past, you would use "has never undergone."
However, the "has" should not be present in the second example. Speedwell and CQ did not include it in their responses; I just thought I should point that out.
how to use word 'had' , 'has' ,'had been' and 'has been'??
Do you have a question? Submit your question here
©2021 CYCLE Interactive, LLC.All Rights Reserved.