Proofreading Service - Pain in the English
Proofreading Service - Pain in the English

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Proofreading Service - Pain in the English
Proofreading Service - Pain in the English

Your Pain Is Our Pleasure

24-Hour Proofreading Service—We proofread your Google Docs or Microsoft Word files. We hate grammatical errors with passion. Learn More

statement

Which statement is correct?

1. The patient has never undergone a colonoscopy.

2. The patient has never underwent a colonoscopy.

  • February 17, 2005
  • Posted by joni
  • Filed in Misc
  • 5 comments

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Comments

The following sentences are both correct:

"The patient has never undergone a colostomy."

"The patient never underwent a colostomy."

One or the other may sound better to you in your context.

speedwell2 Feb-17-2005

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Think of a simpler example:

"I have never gone to see her new house."

Or,

"I never went to see her new house."

"To undergo" follows essentially the same format as "To go."

speedwell2 Feb-17-2005

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Yes, as Speedwell says, both "has never undergone" and "never underwent" are gramatically correct, but they are not semantically equal.

Speedwell is right that undergo has the same forms of go: go, went, gone. So...in the past you'd say underwent, but if you are suggesting that the patient will likely be undergoing a colostomy, even though they haven't in the past, you would use "has never undergone."

CQ Feb-17-2005

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However, the "has" should not be present in the second example. Speedwell and CQ did not include it in their responses; I just thought I should point that out.

Jeff1 Mar-02-2005

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how to use word 'had' , 'has' ,'had been' and 'has been'??

as Sep-30-2006

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