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They have provided no evidence of contacting either Joseph or I.
Did I use “I” correctly?
or fill in the name and email fields below:
They have provided no evidence of contacting I.
This is definitely ungrammatical. However
is better. and
They have provided no evidence of contacting either Joseph or myself.orThey have provided no evidence of contacting either Joseph or me.
are both OK.
July 31, 2006 @ 9:59AM
Now, let me get this straight, Justin. Are you actually positing that generations of the uneducated incorrectly using "me and John" as the subject of a sentence are causing a backlash of use of "John and I" as the object, and that, as a result of this over-correction, it may be come acceptable?That's actually kind of interesting. I do agree that in many cases, misuse of "I" is a result of robotic mis-application of "corrected" grammar, in an attempt to seem more literate, but I don't see this as becoming acceptable, or even remotely mainstream any time soon.Also, regarding the use of "I" in "He is taller than I (am)." Note the verb "to be" is a copulative verb, thus "I" should match case with "he", rather than be treated as an object. I would agree though, that "me" in this case is becoming the norm.
July 31, 2006 @ 11:48AM
Our contingent to the convention, (alice, tom and I/Me) arrived safely.I or ME?
August 4, 2006 @ 10:50AM
August 4, 2006 @ 11:49AM
No, goofy. Either one is not correct. "I" is correct. ICUUCME, "me" is correct.
August 17, 2006 @ 3:05PM
OK, how about this:
Our contingent to the convention, Alice, Tom and me, arrived safely.Please contact Karen or I.
These are acceptable. People say them and understand them. There is no confusion around them. Whether they are "correct", whatever that may mean, is a separate issue.
August 18, 2006 @ 5:21PM
Sorry, goofy. The examples you gave are no different than saying "Me arrived safely" or "Please contact I". This isn't some example of pedantic adherence to complex and arbitrary rules. These are the simplest of sentences with nothing more than subject, verb and object. These are simple rules that are taught in kindergarden, no, before, to the typical three year old. Since when is understandability a criterion for proper grammer? Notice I misspelled grammar? You still understood what I wrote didn't you? Does that mean it was spelled correctly? "Me go store." and "Me fall go boom" are certainly understandable, but neither is grammatical. They sound like I'm imitating a cave man or a two year old. I have said myself how grammar evolves through usage, but that doesn't mean that just because someone says something, that it is grammatical.
August 18, 2006 @ 6:35PM
1a "Me arrived safely."1b "Alice, Tom and me arrived safely."
2a "Please contact I"2b "Please contact Karen or I."
1b and 2b are more acceptable than 1a and 2a. By "acceptable" I mean they don't sound as wrong, and some speakers do say them. In contrast, no adult native speakers would say 1a and 2a.
You're right that just because someone says something, that doesn't make it grammatical. But lots of people say and understand things like 1b and 2b. That fact has to count for something.
"grammatical" for me means something like "part of the unconscious knowledge a group of speakers possesses about how to use their language." By that definition, it would seem that 1b and 2b are grammatical for some people - or at least that sentences like 1b and 2b are in variation with their more traditionally accepted alternatives for those people.
August 21, 2006 @ 3:05PM
"Since when is understandability a criterion for proper grammer?"
It's a very important criterion for grammar. Otherwise what is the point of grammar?
August 21, 2006 @ 3:08PM
RE: "...It's a very important criterion for grammar. Otherwise what is the point of grammar?"
Perhaps I was not completely clear. I did not say that something that is grammatical need not be understandable.What I did say is that being understandable does not make something grammatical, which I think you agree with. I think you may then have interpreted it as the converse of what I said (or, at least, what I meant:).
August 22, 2006 @ 1:49PM
"What I did say is that being understandable does not make something grammatical, which I think you agree with."
I do agree with that!
August 22, 2006 @ 1:52PM
Fred = subjecthas introduced = verbBob and (?) = object
Objective form is me, not I.
I is incorrect. Me is correct here.
As suggested before, if you change the plural from "Bob and I" to just "I", it becomes quite obvious: "...Fred has introduced I..." is wrong. "...Fred has introduced me..." is correct.
The whole sentence should read: "I saw that Fred has introduced Bob and me via email and I would like to follow up by saying that we are extremely excited about working with you, James, and DynaCorp." Also note, "follow up" should not be hyphenated. "Follow-up" is a noun. You want the verb form here (and of course, it's spelled follow, not foolow).
Oh, and just a style comment; The sentence a bit long, a bit of a run-on sentence.
August 10, 2007 @ 11:36AM
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