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Joined: August 13, 2004  (email not validated)
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Perhaps the answer to the conundrum lies in punctuation style. Let's consider the supposed accusative object is actually an absolute phrase. This absolute phrase is then modifying the singular object. It could be a question of syntax and not grammar. Is a comma necessary or does style afford such. How do you know they are two objects to begin with? Only the writer does.

andrewmimori August 13, 2004, 7:31pm

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