semiotek

Joined: November 29, 2005  (email not validated)

Number of comments posted: 24

Number of votes received: 34

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Recent Comments

Re: “my” vs. “mine” in multiple owner possessive  •  January 9, 2013, 3:42am  •  0 vote

For the example given in the original question, my is correct and mine grammatically impossible - the rest is just style.

Re: tailorable  •  March 7, 2012, 3:36am  •  0 vote

I wouldn't use it, but some might find it bearable. Be that as it may, your document is certainly not "able" under any circumstances - try *capable of being* or *can be*, with either expression then f

Re: Floorings?  •  February 16, 2012, 9:34am  •  0 vote

Yes!

Re: Sift  •  February 16, 2012, 9:33am  •  15 votes

You strain it.

Re: Correct preposition following different?  •  January 31, 2011, 6:20pm  •  2 votes

I note that I have left an open bracket - although that was accidental, it illustrates my feeling about "different than" rather well…

Re: “Self-confessed”  •  January 31, 2011, 4:14pm  •  0 vote

Surely the term is a noun rather than a preterite, and therefore not to be considered as a verb? Anyway, were it to lose its first element it is potentially confusing, which possibility might account

Re: Correct preposition following different?  •  January 31, 2011, 3:59pm  •  0 vote

Logical argument - this is language usage in the real world of which you speak, no? As to my own usage, I can live quite happily with "different to" but find "different than" to be semantically unv

Re: Whom are you?  •  October 17, 2010, 3:45am  •  4 votes

Prescribed by whom, precisely?

Re: Whom are you?  •  October 14, 2010, 1:20pm  •  2 votes

Although scyllacat is correct in this case, her argument doesn't hold up for an example such as _it is me_ - not many would now say _it is I_.

Re: Whom are you?  •  October 14, 2010, 11:42am  •  1 vote

Did you never hear that the verb "to be" takes no object? Too strict an adage for real world usage of course, but dead on in this case.

Re: Why are some single objects plural?  •  October 7, 2010, 7:27am  •  3 votes

I suspect the jeans issue is due to trousers having begun life as two separate leg covers which were subsequently joined together. Nevertheless, it was commonplace (when such existed) for gentlemen's

Re: Space After Period  •  May 30, 2008, 5:56am  •  0 vote

One - anything else drives me insane!

Re: Possessive when abbreviated letter is plural  •  May 9, 2008, 7:26am  •  0 vote

HFK's would also work, for the same reason.

Re: As it were  •  December 20, 2007, 12:39am  •  1 vote

Gosh - it'll be gerunds next!!

Re: As it were  •  December 20, 2007, 12:22am  •  1 vote

Wonderful Drew - there are at least two of us who remember the subjunctive!

Re: Punctuation of Ltd.  •  June 30, 2007, 9:06am  •  0 vote

There is no need for any comma at all, and the inclusion of a full-stop is a matter of style only nowadays.

Re: Impact as a noun  •  November 30, 2006, 2:20pm  •  1 vote

I think "crazy" a very polite description for the gentleman - what he claims is arrant nonsense, and if anything it would be the use of impact as a verb that is questionable (at least for a Brit, such

Re: Parentheses vs. Square Brackets  •  July 24, 2006, 12:46pm  •  0 vote

Whatever about that, "a SIGNIFICANT figures" is clearly incorrect!

Re: Writing out percentages correctly  •  July 19, 2006, 10:58am  •  1 vote

In my view it is entirely proper to write the digital/symbol form. I always write numbers up to ninety-nine in words, greater numbers in digits, and percentages as described.

Re: Doing the dishes...  •  July 4, 2006, 9:40am  •  0 vote

While I can't think of a rule for this, it does occur to me that the expression "do the necessary" may offer a clue to why the chores get a definite article.

Re: Paraphrase  •  May 5, 2006, 3:59am  •  0 vote

Neither a paraphrase nor a quotation - just an allusion to Eliot.

Re: Genius and Ingenious  •  March 13, 2006, 1:43am  •  1 vote

The simple answer is that there isn't really a question. If you check the etymology of the two words, you'll find that they don't in fact share a common root as you seem to assume.

Re: “It is I” vs. “It is me”  •  March 6, 2006, 9:01am  •  2 votes

What does correct mean? Long ago when I was young, the rule was that the verb to be takes no object - there is a grammatical logic to it. However, people commonly say "it is me" and that form is now '

Re: Is it a colloquial form?  •  November 29, 2005, 1:12pm  •  0 vote

It's a poetic, even archaic form, often found in old folk songs - Dylan was much influenced by those in the early years. Perhaps the most obvious example of the usage is "Summer is a'comin' in" - just