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Joined: December 6, 2011
Comments posted: 2
Votes received: 0
March 20, 2013
October 24, 2012
December 6, 2011
JJM, I would have to disagree here. "Work" would not be considered an infinitive, though yes, I will concede to "bare infinitive." (In my school, we teach "base verb.") But if both "work" and "to work" were labeled as the infinitive, it would cause too much confusion when speaking about different formulas.
For example, if we were to say, "When using modals, the main verb goes in the infinitive," and also, "With the verb "to agree," we use the infinitive of the second verb rather than the gerund," the results could be "I can to go to the mall today," and "I agree go to the mall today," both of which would be incorrect.
January 27, 2012, 11:03am
Warsaw Will-- Thanks! I was trying to look for a more general rule, but we all know English doesn't work like that. Causatives makes perfect sense.
Chris -- I asked more because different verbs have different rules (e.g. ask + infinitive, get + past participle), and wanted to know the rule for "make." Conjugation depends on the verb being used and on how it is used, rather than whether it is the main verb.
For example, consider auxiliaries. Here, you conjugate the auxiliary (i.e. do, have, be, modals) rather than the main verb. For example:She has been to Costa Rica three times.James doesn't like eating meat.
December 9, 2011, 11:40pm
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