Your Pain Is Our Pleasure

Pain in the English offers proofreading services for short-form writing such as press releases, job applications, or marketing copy. 24 hour turnaround. Learn More

“40 and 50%” vs. “40% and 50%”

I need to give a range of percentages. Do I say “somewhere between 40 and 50%?” or “somewhere between 40% and 50%”? Does the percentage sign get assigned to the first value, even though it’s not verbally articulated?

Submit Your Comment

Or

Comments

Sort by  OldestLatestRating

I'd say that when using the % sign it would be "between 40% and 50%" but when spelling it out "between 40 and 50 percent" would be adequate.

Hairy Scot March 25, 2017, 1:12am

0 vote    Permalink    Report Abuse

It depends on what you are writing. In a legal document one might spell it out unambiguously as "between forty percent and fifty percent". Elsewhere omitting the first percentage sign may well be clear enough.

jayles the unworthy March 23, 2017, 6:14am

1 vote    Permalink    Report Abuse

Yes     No