“I’ve got” vs. “I have”

@WW ... A few of those words on your list are well known outside of Scottish English. Well, at least they're known in AmE but then we hav a lot of folks whose forbears came from Scotland ... pinkie, wee, loch (there are place names in the US with loch), dour are all well known and noted in the US ... a few others less so ... dreich, whist. To red(d) ... not on your list) is to clean up or get ready.

@WW - dour is also known in England, but usually pronounced differently; wee is no doubt pretty universal. It seems the latest Scottish word to catch on in England is 'minging', (red-lined) which in Scotland originally meant smelling badly, but seems to be taking on a meaning among English young people of 'very bad, unpleasant or ugly'.

But if you have place names with loch in the US, why is it that Americans (and the English for that matter) seem to be unable to pronounce it? Which reminds me of these lines from an old music-hall song 'Wee Deoch an Doris made popular by Harry Lauder - 'If you can say, "It's a braw bricht moonlicht nicht",Then yer a'richt, ye ken.'

red(d) up does indeed seem to mean clean or tidy up, and appears to have gone to America from Scotland, but I don't think I've ever heard it in Scotland.

My list was of Scottish words used in Standard Scottish English, not dialect. If we include dialect words that non-dialect-speakers like myself understand, we can add hundreds of others, for example:

lum - chimney - Lang may your lum reek
reek - smoke (Edinburgh was known as Auld Reekie, just like London was 'the Big Smoke')
it's a sair fecht - (approximately) it's a hard life

and words also used in parts of the North of England, like:

ken - know
bairn - child
kirk - church
ken - know

@WW
I have heard "redd" on many occasions, mainly as "redd oot" meaning to clean out or clear out.
It was/is often used by indignant mothers when discussing teenage son's untidy sleeping quarters.
It is synonymous with "muck" which is used in much the same context.
A fine example of "muck" appears in the Andy Stewart song "The Muckin' o' Geordie's Byre", which could well have be rendered as "The Reddin' o' Geordie's Byre" R

I might just add that the usage of the present perfect to talk about actions happening in the present is not solely and English issue. In the French language, for example, the present perfect doesn't exist - rather they use a simple present. i.e. I have = j'ai and I have got = j'ai. I have been (eg somewhere for a length of time) = I am.

M'sieur 'arrycastle !
Many languages of Europe 'ave a form using "have+participle"; however, the exact usage is different. Using this form with "since", 'how long" and "for" to indicate a period up to the present is, it is true, very English.

Proper as it may be, hearing "You've got..." repeatedly during an given Al Roker segment is redolent of a cat sliding down a chalkboard tree.

@Harrycastle, belatedly - "In the French language, for example, the present perfect doesn't exist - rather they use a simple present. i.e. I have = j'ai and I have got = j'ai."

This is a double whammy, I'm afraid.

1. The 'I've got' construction is nothing to do with present perfect, of 'get' or anything else - so the 'j'ái' thing is neither here nor there. It's simply an idiomatic version of 'I have' which can only be used in the present; for other times we need to use 'have'. If 'I've got' was present perfect we would be able to use past simple and past perfect of 'get' with same meaning (which we patently can't):

She's got blonde hair = She has blonde hair

* When I first knew her she got brown hair - where did she obtain it from, I wonder?
- correct version - When I first knew her she had brown hair

* She had originally got black hair, apparently - again, where had she obtained it from?
- correct version- She had originally had black hair, apparently

Forget present perfect, it has nothing to do with it. Why is it that most foreign learners grasp this quite easily, but some native speakers just can't see the wood for the trees, I wonder?

2.French does have a tense constructed in the same way as present perfect - passé composé, which has two functions. In spoken French it is used instead of the passé simple to talk about the past. But its primary function is much the same as present perfect - "Le passé composé fonctionne normalement comme forme d'accompli dans le présent" (Grammaire du francais - Denis, Sancier-Chateau, Livre de Poche) - The passé composé functions normally as a form of completion in the present:

"Jusqu'á présent Paul ná écouté que de la musique classique"
"Up until now Paul has only listened to classical music."

Attacking or criticising the person rather than the opinion or position seems to be something that is very much in vogue on internet forums (or fora if you prefer it).
I have encountered it on a number of occasions but I must say that it pains me to see instances of it here on PITE.
While I may not always agree with WW, I would never dream of insulting him.

Thanks, HS

Another example of where phrase/context/meaning may be at odds is "How are you?". This is often more politeness rather than a real enquiry. Answering with anything other than "fine" or "good" may not be what is sought.

Likewise, the waitress, the receptionist, the yoga teacher may greet you with a "friendly" intonation, and a smile. It does not mean they would welcome a date. In fact their real attitude beneath the "professional" overly may be hard to determine.

Intonation conveys attitude, part of the meta-data of speech; but it is more difficult to research; and hard to teach to English learners whose native intontion patterns may be quite different. Try watching Vladimir Putin, or Ban Ki Moon; the smile/non-smile and intonations convey perhaps the wrong message to native English speakers

On usage, the Cambridge Grammar of English (p883) states:
The present tense form of have with got used for possession is more than twice as frequent in spoken BrE as in AmE:
•I've got one sister and one brother. (BrE)
•I have a cousin who never married. (AmE)
On formality, Swan in Practical English Usage (p230) states:
Got forms are especially common in an informal style. ... In very informal American speech, people may drop 've before got. I('ve) got a problem.

Although the addition of "got" may not follow the strictest syntax rules I believe it's use can be justified here because it serves as an intensifier that emphasizes the need to act is greater than the use of "have" alone connotes.
Also, when the contraction "I've" is used then the addition of "got" improves the word structure sonically by preserving the normal rhythm of a sentence because the contraction works as a single word that serves as the noun, or rather, pronoun of the sentence and leaves a need for another verb.

What sentence would you rather use? I have the music in me. or I've got the music in me.

@Sandie

Neither, because I don't have the music in me.

The use of 'got' in a clause describing possession of something, such as 'I have got a pen', is superfluous. 'I have a pen' is just fine and indicates a brevity and clarity of thought that eludes many people. It may also indicate the influence of other languages. In French 'I have' is normal. I'm not sure how you would say 'I have got' in French. In fact in French you don't need the addition of 'got' to convey meaning or emphasis. French does seem to have a brevity that English has lost over the years. Around 60% of the English vocabulary originates from French. The Norman invasion of 1066 established French as the language of nobility and government, Latin was the language of the Church and Anglo-Saxon was for the commoners. 
I am an Englishman who has spent many years learning English so I feel I am entitled to criticise the language and especially those who use it badly. Perhaps it's the Germanic influence on English that has caused the gradual creep of 'got'. American English has certainly been a big influence  on the language. A good example of how American English has been a positive influence eludes me at the moment but I do know they exist. The German language had a big influence on American English and in my opinion this comes through in expressions such as 'gotten'. It's a natural progression on the word got but it definitely grates on the British ear. 
The next time I watch a British movie of the 1930s or 1940s I will note the use of the word 'got', although the scripted dialogue may not be a good indicator of common usage. 
Grammar is the set of rules used to govern the use of spoken and written words. As with all rules, some are so rarely enforced that they wither on the vine of principles until extinct. 

Try "I have gotten...."

@Ralph Malph

"I have gotten...."??

No thanks!

Ang ive got a
Do you like this skateboard
I havent got

I haven't got a clue!
I got my first real six string, bought is at the five'n'dime, etc

If you can substitute 'got' with 'fetched' in your sentence, you are not using 'got' incorrectly.

I have been told by my British friends that "have got" means the same as "have gotten" which is considered a bit archaic there. But in that usage, they are the past perfect tense of "get".

I have means to possess
( I have a dog )
I got means to obtain
( I got a dog )

PET PEEVE!!

It shold have been me?

Thank you!

I’m still learning English and I was confused about this (I have vs I’ve got), but you all have different opinions. The questions is, can I use what I want? Are both correct?

It is redundant to use "got" when "have" already indicates possession.
It also is not pleasing to the ear; it sounds clumsy.

Goofy, of course the word "redundant" doesn't mean "incorrect," duh. But in language redundant things just ARE incorrect.

No, 106928, of course that "have" is not redundant with the word "got." It's not the same kind of "have" as the possessing kind. It's more like a participle form. Would it be present participle? I'm not really sure, but something like that. But I just know that it's not the same form of "have" as if to show possession.

Oh, but to add to that: neither do I know why sometimes people prefer that format over the simpler "I have."

I’m learning another language that does not allow the have/possess verb to be used in present simple. Present perfect is necessary. I won’t go into the reasons here, but it got me thinking about English.

Is there a relationship between the auxiliary “have” for the present perfect and the verb “have” used for possession? Or another way, did one lead to the other? Which came into use first, “I have a chicken” or “I have got a chicken”?