Submitted by richardcaburet • October 2, 2005
Why is w pronounced double u, but m is not pronounced double n?
September 19, 2007, 11:28am
Interesting. So why do the French pronouce "W" as "doobleh-vay" - while pronouncing "U" as "oo" and "V" as "vay?"
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September 18, 2007, 2:05pm
But they didn't, of course.
October 8, 2005, 2:57pm
M was never two N's. They were always different letters. But when "W" was still "UU" and looked more like "VV", one would write:
"VVE DID IT! VVE VVON THE VVAR!"
October 8, 2005, 2:38pm
Quote: "Why do they even call it Double-U if all it is is two V's put together?
V was the symbol for U long ago. They got a lot of mileage out of it too, until V, U and W officially became three separate letters. If you look at some old monuments you'll see all sorts of V's where there would now be U's.
"E PLVRIBVS VNVM." Just kind of rolls off the tongue, don't it?
October 2, 2005, 2:50pm
Why do they even call it Double-U if all it is is two V's put together?
October 2, 2005, 12:45pm
in older versions of english, there was no "W." instead the sound was made by putting two "U"s together. at one point they combined UU and made it W.
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