Submitted by Dyske  •  April 19, 2012

It had impacts on...

Is it grammatically correct to say “It had impacts on...”? If the singular form is correct (it had an impact on), I would imagine that the plural form would have to be also correct.

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Would it be correct (...and simply more consise) to just say "It impacted...."

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"Is it grammatically correct to say 'It had impacts on...'?"

Yes.

(Sounds pretty leaden though.)

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For once I agree with JJMB. :-)

I would also avoid the use of impacted, but that's just my choice.

What's wrong with using "affect/affects/affected"?

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"Impacted" is something that happens to wisdom teeth. As a substitute for "affected", it is in vogue, but lame.

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If impact, the noun, means the effect, then there is nothing lame about impact, the verb, meaning to affect.

BTW, impact was a verb before it was a noun:

impact (n.)
1781, "collision," from impact (v.). Figurative sense of "forceful impression" is from 1817 (Coleridge).

impact (v.)
c.1600, "press closely into something," from L. impactus, pp. of impingere "to push into, dash against, thrust at". Originally sense preserved in impacted teeth (1876). Sense of "strike forcefully against something" first recorded 1916. Figurative sense of "have a forceful effect on" is from 1935.

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