Submitted by Mitsy  •  November 19, 2011

“by the time”

A question about time expressions with the past perfect tense: I realise “by the time” is a time expression used with the past perfect but in this sentence: “By the time he arrived at school, the lesson had finished” , why is “by the time” next to the verb in the past tense (arrived) as if it is refering to that verb rather than to the one in the past perfect (had finished)?

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Makes me wonder...
By the time he arrived at school, the lesson had finished.
Suggesting that he is late, the lesson is completely over, and he has missed it.
He arrived at school by the time the lesson had finished.
Seemingly indicating (to me) that his goal was to get there by then at the latest, and he succeeded by arriving when (or before) the lesson was over. Similar to 'Be home by the time dinner is ready."

Are these correct understandings of the different placement?

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Thank you!

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'By the time' is referring to 'arrived', not 'had finished'

'By the time' really means 'before (the time)' - try it this way:

'The lesson had finished before he arrived.'

The lesson could have finished an hour ago or two minutes ago, it wouldn't make any difference to the sentence.

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