“I’ve got” vs. “I have”

"redundant" does not mean "incorrect".

Merriam-Webster's Dictionary of English Usage says "Have will do perfectly well in writing that avoids the natural rhythms of speech. But in speech, or prose that resembles speech, you will probably want have got."

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The answer to your question is yes and no. There are instances where "I have" and I have got" mean the same thing. For example: I have/got to go. In other cases there is a slight distinction: I have a rash versus I have got a rash. There is a slight change in tense, but not an exact one.

The word "got" has a bad rep. It should not. Use it.

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First, I suggest you do a little experiment. Say 'I have a car' and then 'I've got a car', and notice how your mouth moves. The second is more efficient (we don't have to open wide for the 'a' sound in have, everything goes smoothly forward). I suspect, but have no scientific evidence to back this up, that very often when we have a choice, between 'which' or 'that' for example, we go for the one which involves the least mouth movement. I imagine that this was the origin of many irregular forms.

Second, I confess I cannot understand this current obsession with redundancy. Why can't people simply enjoy using the language we all speak, and the choices we have in formulating it, without constantly looking for so-called errors. Most of us use redundancy the whole time in spoken language. So what!

@Sharm - not in BrE at least, where 'I've got a car' means 'I possess a car', whereas 'I've just got a car' means 'I've just obtained a car'. Both Oxford and Cambridge Advanced Learner's Dictionaries list 'have got' under 'have', not 'get'. They also say that this use for possession is mainly in BrE.

@dogreed - again in BrE 'I have a rash' means exactly the same as 'I have got a rash' - 'have got' is simply an alternative present tense of 'have' (Shaw - Practical English Usage)

@goofy - spot on, as usual.

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The English language (as with pretty much any language) is filled with examples of multiple ways of expressing the same idea. I don't consider that redundancy.

The "have" and "got" in "have got" are also not redundant, because the "have" is an auxiliary verb, while the "got" is a participle.

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first look up the definition of "got", notice it is past tense.
"I have a car" is present tense
"I got a car" is a past tense sentence (and you may no longer have that car)
have (present tense) and got (past tense) do not belong next to each other
period

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Jim: I'm not sure about your logic.
What about "I have a car" (present) and "I bought a car" (past)? You can certainly say "I have bought a car". As cnelsonrepublic says, "have" is an auxiliary verb.

In short, "have got" is perfectly good English.

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"He's very lucky really. He's got a wonderful family and they've got a lovely old house in the country, which his family have had for centuries. The house has also got a huge garden, which needs a lot of attention."

"Luckily he's got a good job to pay for all the upkeep. But sometimes the pressure can be a bit much. His company's got an important contract which has to be finalised this week, so they've got a lot of work on. This afternoon alone he's got three client meetings. He also had three yesterday and will probably have a couple more tomorrow. But at least he's got the weekend free"

It's not rocket science. My EFL students can handle it easily enough. 'have got' = alternative present tense of 'have' for possession - no more, no less. (Notice past, future and perfect forms all use simple 'have') This usage for possession is probably more common in the UK than simple 'have'. It's natural Standard English - just check a dictionary (BrE are likely to have more about it. See comment above), but @Jim, please look under 'have got', not 'got', which is something completely different. 'I got a car' (get) is a red herring; it has nothing to do with 'I've got a car' (have got), full stop.

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Wow! everyone is so sure of themselves on here! FULL STOP indeed!

I think the most that can be said against "have got" is that it's redundant. It is not expressing anything unique about the reality of "having' a noun.

"I have a car"
"I have got a car"

The second sentence doesn't sound very elegant, but most take little issue with "I've got a car"

Notice how it sounds more reasonable than

"I've a car"

You really have to put emphasis on the contraction (when speaking) to make it sound correct to the listener. In fact, I wonder if American English speakers would hear this as anything other than someone trying to be pretentious.

So perhaps not a FULL STOP, but more of a ellipse?

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Jim, of course "have" and "got" belong next to each other. "got" is the past tense, but it's also a past participle.

About the meaning difference between "have" and "have got", Merriam-Webster's Dictionary of English Usage notes that for many Americans, "have got" denotes mere possession, but "have" denotes obtaining.

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@Jackbox - my 'full stop' was meant to be an ironic reply to @Jim's 'period'. Well yes, I am relatively sure of myself because I've been teaching English for ten years, and I also checked out my facts fairly carefully before commenting, see references above. (swa.randomidea).

I agree with the gist of your argument, but would just add that for us Brits, the ' have got' is the more usual construction. As for whether it's redundant or not, is of supreme indifference to me (as you could see just then), it's the way most of us speak. Unless of course I was writing for the New Yorker, but that's not going to happen.

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In case I’m wrong I took your advice and looked up “have got”. Problem is it isn’t in my Webster’s Collegiate or the online Merriam–Webster.com but both references define got as past and past participle of get. (notice either way,it is past tense) If you know of a legitimate reference that goes further, let me know. Until then, how you stretch "got" to mean present tense possession is beyond me.
And please don’t use the excuse that it’s normal communication, with that reasoning "they’re" and "there" will soon be synonymous.

At the very least, all “have got” is is four more keys typed with no change in meaning.

thanks for the debate everyone

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@Jim - Hi. I think this is mainly British usage, which is why you might not find it in US dictionaries (but you will find it if you google it) . So here's a couple (or four) -

http://www.oxfordadvancedlearnersdictionary.com...
http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/brit...
http://www.ldoceonline.com/dictionary/have_2
http://www.macmillandictionary.com/dictionary/b...

And from ESL and grammar websites
http://esl.about.com/cs/beginner/a/beg_havegot.htm
http://grammar.quickanddirtytips.com/have-got-g...
http://www.eslbase.com/grammar/have-got
http://www.better-english.com/havegot.htm (quiz with examples)

See, it really isn't a figment of my imagination.

Note to administrator -this is not entering my name, but part of my email address instead.

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@Jim - I've sent 4 dictionary references as well as some grammar website references, but they're being held over for approval (too many URLs). In the meantime if you google 'have got', the first two entries are About.com and GrammarGirl - they will give you an American perspective while the other references are being approved.

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You are all pulling at hairs. The simple answer is that "I have" is more commonly used in written English and "I've got" is more commonly used in spoken English. Both are acceptable forms and there is no grammatical explanation for a preference in either usage. Get a grip all of you.

- EFL/TESL teacher with 20 years experience in 7 countries -

ps Jim Scrivener is my bitch rofl

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RE: milamber

Ah, the two types of responders on comments boards: the curious arguer and the heroic, mensch who comes to save the day with "common sense' folksy wisdom! Thank you! Did John Lennon write "Working Class Hero" for you?

Look, I am sure we can all the play the game of who has the biggest credentials, the point is, this is a forum (at least I thought it was!) for people do discuss the vagaries of English usage. From on high you say "get a grip," but that suggests that language is somehow not open to friendly discussion about it's inconsistencies. I for one have found the chat (up until you chimed with your massive, engorged TESL creds) to be enlightening. Perhaps civility isn't the hallmark of the board? You sound EXACTLY like the respondents at Youtube or a hockey board.

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Thank you all! I for one am thrilled to hear that I may continue to use "I've got" with relative impunity. As a Canadian raised in the US, I think I may be stuck somewhere between British and American usage on some of these topics. I agree with those who find more humor than horror in regional usages of expressions, but it wasn't always that way! This site is a revelation.

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Everyone's pretty much said it. In written stuff, it's redundant, somewhat informal, etc., and probably not recommended usage.

But in speech, it's ordinary, common idiom, nothing to worry about. Oddly, until now, I'd assumed it was Southern, cuz that's where I stay. :)

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I think "have got" implies there is/was/will be an action of some sort on the speaker's part. Using "have" does not imply that (dependent on other things said).

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"Is there not a redundancy in the use of 'got' with 'have'?"

No. Otherwise the speaker would not have used it.

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"And please don’t use the excuse that it’s normal communication, with that reasoning 'they’re' and 'there' will soon be synonymous.

They'll never be synonymous no matter how you spell them.

Perhaps you meant homographic?

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Scyllacat:
"But in speech, it's ordinary, common idiom, nothing to worry about."
I totally agree. I live in New Zealand but am originally from the UK. In both countries you frequently hear "I've got", which is (in my opinion) completely interchangeable with "I have".

Jim:
"At the very least, all “have got” is is four more keys typed with no change in meaning."
I don't buy this argument. For instance there exist in English the words "huge", "massive", "gigantic", "enormous" and "colossal". They all basically mean the same thing, namely "very big". Would you suggest we only ever use "huge" because it's shorter than the alternatives? In English there are often many ways of expressing the same concept; I think that's a good thing.

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milamber, I appreciate and applaud your credentials; however in my 29 years in my own profession one thing I’ve learned is that it’s hard to find someone who knows everything about their profession. Should you know? Yes, but that’s not a guarantee.

JJMBallantyne, “there and they’re (I should have included their)” synonymous or homographic? Maybe homographic would be better, maybe not. I’m mainly suggesting the words are interchanged so often (by those that don’t seem to know the definitions) that their distinction is lost.

Chris B, does that mean that you couldn’t stack “huge", "massive", "gigantic", "very big", "enormous" and "colossal" in some order of increasing size and that they mean exactly the same? IE might you consider an enormous mountain to be different size than a very big mountain?

I believe that if you polled a lot of people, and asked the definition of got (not have got) they would say something similar to “have”, and that’s my issue, the distinction between have and got doesn’t exist to a significant % of the population.

But, apparently I’m alone on this side of the fence and the rest of the world is not only ok with “I’ve got” you’re downright in love with its use and mad that I suggest its might incorrect. I guess I’ll need (oops, my mistake) I guess I’ve got to be ok with ads like “Got Milk?” and its derivatives like a shirt I recently saw printed “Got CPR?”

Well I have got to go now, I have got to work on a project that I have got.

I wonder if it would have been more proper or at least clearer to have said
“Well I need to go now, I want to work on a project that I have.”
But that’s just me I ‘spose
Bye all, it been fun

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First of all: I made a mistake in my earlier post. "Have got" denotes possession, but "have gotten" denotes obtaining (for many Americans).

Next, Jim, I did give you a "legitimate references that goes further": Merriam-Webster's Dictionary of English Usage. Here's the entry: http://books.google.com/books?id=2yJusP0vrdgC&a...

You complained that "got" has been stretched to mean present tense possession. It's not much of a stretch to use the present perfect to refer to actions in the present. The fact is that it *is* normal English, and how else can we judge what is acceptable English other than by looking at how good writers use English? And "have got" has been used by good writers, including Austen, Byron and Carroll. It's worth noting that they used it in corresponce, which is why MWDEU says it is more suited to speech and speech-like prose than formal writing.

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goofy is right! For more information on the conjugation of the verb "to get" see http://conjugator.reverso.net/conjugation-engli...
When using the present perfect tense the writer is emphsizing the present effect of an action which happened in the past.

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Jim: "I’m mainly suggesting the words are interchanged so often (by those that don’t seem to know the definitions) that their distinction is lost."

Presumably by "interchanged" you simply meant misspelled. I seriously doubt that the distinction between the meanings of "they're" and "there" is lost, even on the most illiterate writer.

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I have = Americanism
I've got = Britishism

That's truly the difference, I promise.

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I did not expect so much debate on this.
My own feeling is that "I have" is a bit more elegant than "I have got". I was not aware that either form had a geographic bias.
I would also take issue with any suggestion as to nuances of tense.
Finally, got is the past tense of get, which the OED defines in a number of ways, all of which basically mean to "acquire" or "take possession of" etc etc.
So "I got" would mean "I acquired" not "I possess".

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I agree hairyscot.

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It's actually a regional thing. I'm an American moving to London next year, so I've been studying the differences between the way Brits and Americans speak (watching Doctor Who and Sherlock help a ton, haha, but also speaking to them online so as not to make a silly mistake and embarrass myself with something they only do on the "telly") and I've noticed this. Americans more often say, for instance, "I have a meeting this afternoon." wherefore Englishmen will say, "I've got a meeting this afternoon." It's one of the many things I've noticed, alongside a Brit's way of asking a question, "Have you got a meeting this afternoon?" When an Americsn would say, "Do you have a meeting this afternoon?"
Not only that, but the tone of voice in general is different, I don't know how to explain it through text but there is a clear difference between where people in Britain and people in the US will stress words to ask a question, the British version sounding more like a statement than a question.

It's all veeery interesting to me. :) I'm excited to go to England and pick up more.

There is the past-present tense difference,

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-- oops. Haha.
There is the past-present tense difference, but it's really just where you're from, they can and usually do mean the same thing.

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Jim (above) says: In case I’m wrong I took your advice and looked up “have got”. Problem is it isn’t in my Webster’s Collegiate or the online Merriam–Webster.com but both references define got as past and past participle of get. (notice either way,it is past tense) If you know of a legitimate reference that goes further, let me know. Until then, how you stretch "got" to mean present tense possession is beyond me.

It is a present tense - it's called the present perfect tense. As tenses go this does not travel well. It exists in German, Spanish, Portuguese and Italian, among others, and is used differently in each. In old German it was the same as in British English but now is used to mean the same as the past tense. In the south of Italy it is the same as in British English but it refers only to the recent past in the north. In Spanish is is often similar to the English but is largely disused outside Spain. The same with Portuguese. In English it is used the same way in the UK and in most other parts of the English-speaking world except that in the USA its use decreases as you move form the east coast to the west. Many, if not most, Americans are confused by the tense and do not use it consistently - in fact many are very weak when it comes to perfect tenses, possibly due to high levels of immigration and the strong influence of the large number of early German settlers. On 'Judge Judy' for example witnesses habitually use the past perfect tense 'I had gone' as a kind of formal simple past tense to mean 'I went.'

The present perfect has a number of wrinkles but a simple explanation is to say:

I have seen the light of the lord = (past statement) I saw the light of the lord at some undefined point in the past AND (present implication) the information in the past statement has some significance for the present and I invite you to think what it is.

So: I have got = I got something in the past so I have it now.

Longwinded, perhaps, but there you are.

Remember in American English the verb goes 'get got gotten' but in the UK this old form has been dropped and the verb is 'get got got.'

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Ok, this really shouldn't be all that hard to understand. While both words have more than one meaning, let's compare "to have" meaning "to possess", with "to get", meaning "to receive". "Got" is the simple past tense and as mentioned above, "have got" is the present perfect.

The present perfect is used to describe past events that happened at an unspecified time. E.g., "I have eaten breakfast already." is ok, but not "I have eaten breakfast at 9AM." It should be "I ate breakfast at 9AM."

When you say "I have got" something, it means that some time in the past, you received it. At one time you didn't have it, then at some later time, you did. There's nothing wrong, grammatically or semantically, with such an assertion.

When you say "I have" something, it means that you are in possession of it, nothing more and nothing less. There's nothing wrong with this either.

Now follow me on this: anything that you currently have, you must have got at some time or another. Even if you were born with a particular trait, you still received it at the moment of your creation (reincarnation notwithstanding). Conversely, everything you have got, you still have, unless of course, you've disposed of it somehow (in which case, you'd probably say "had got").

So, "I have" and "I have got" do not actually mean the same thing, but anything you can say one about, you can just as readily say the other about. They can be used interchangeably. Both are correct, but still different. Do people often say one when they really mean the other? Probably, but it really doesn't matter if they are logically equivalent.

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@Porsche
How about "I have to go" vs "I have got to go"?
or "I have to have an operation" vs "I have got to have an operation"?

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I still think "I have a lovely bunch of coconuts" sounds so much better than "I've got a lovely bunch of coconuts"

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@Porsche
What utter balderdash!

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New Reader:
Porsche's comments on the English language are normally exceptionally good, but unfortunately I have to agree with you here.

In the UK (where I was brought up) and NZ (where I live now), "I have" and "I have got" mean precisely the same thing. It's no more complicated than that. You can say "I've got ten toes" even though you've always had them.

Perhaps in America the situation is different.

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&Chris B
I agree. Porsche's comments are normally worth reading, but I think he is a bit off the mark in this case.

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It's complicated tu use HAVE GOT and I don´t know why British grammar try to make our lives difficult. I am more familiar with the America way.

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It's complicated tu use HAVE GOT and I don´t know why British grammar tries to make our lives difficult. I am more familiar with the America way.

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Well what about I have 2 ears. I would say this yet in.an English exam in.Spain, my.son was told it should be I have got 2 ears, a sentence I would take.to.meamn i have at some pont acquired 2 ears and not at all grammatically correct.

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@joeydq
I agree with you.
The example you quote shows that some of the explanations given in justification of the use of "have got" are utter nonsense.
Furthermore, why use 2 words when one will do the job better.

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I explained to his teacher that have got is used colloquially to mean possession, but its usual meaning is to acquire. Therefore, I have got 2 bananas is fine in speech or as written conversation, although I have 2 bananas expresses the same thing in less words and is more true to the English language, but I have got 2 ears can never be correct, unless you have just bought said ears. In this context, I have got 2 ears implies that at some point you have acquired said ears rather than being.born with them. So, there are some scenarios where I have got just will not do.

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@Chris B ... I think someone upthread said it but I'll say it again since it seems to be what is befuddling folks.

In the US, one HEARS "I'v got" for "I have", and "I'v got to" or "I got to" (gotta) for "I must/I have to". Oddly, yu won't find it written out much that way ... at least not beyond chats and maybe some forums. Folks often switch to "I have" when writing and benote "gotten" as the ppl.

What yu don't hear (much) in the US, is "I have got" for "I have". In speech, the contraction is said. I think is owing to "I'v got" and "I got" are so near in sound and often, in context, mean the same thing. ...

John often forgets a book and leaves it in the house. In the car, Mom says, "Do yu hav yur book?" ... "Yes, I'v got it." ... He could hav as eathly said, "I got it" meaning that he got it on the way out.

It helps that "gotten" is still brooked in the US. Then it becomes clearer. "Hav yu gotten the book that yu ordered?" ... If yu say "Hav yu got?" then its unclear whether yu asking "Do yu hav it?" or "Did yu get it?"

@joeydq ... I think yu'r right. I would never teach "I have got" aside from being a colloquialism that the learner needs to be aware of.

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I still believe that the "got" is unnecessary since "I have" in itself denotes possession or the need to do something whether or not used with "got".
And as I said back in May, I would also take issue with any suggestion as to nuances of tense.
@Anwulf
John could also have said "Yes, I have it", or maybe even "Yes, mum".

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lmao lmao grow up GOT GOT GOT GOT GOT GOT GOT ps im glad that whoever made this site is the king of grammer and created the english language to be able to tell us all the way that we can use it. psps GOT it?

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hahaha unbelievable, I still believe that the "got" is unnecessary since "I have" in itself denotes possession or the need to do something whether or not used with "got".
And as I said back in May, I would also take issue with any suggestion as to nuances of tense.
@Anwulf
John could also have said "Yes, I have it", or maybe even "Yes, mum". WOW hairy scot has been arguing over the word got since back in may < brother your fight really has changed the world, seriously i hear got maybe 3 time less a day now ur amazin> Now lets switch over to the word Aint and keep that arguement goin till december next year!

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porsche (above) says: 'The present perfect is used to describe past events that happened at an unspecified time. E.g., "I have eaten breakfast already." is ok, but not "I have eaten breakfast at 9AM." It should be "I ate breakfast at 9AM."'

This is definitely what the present perfect does not do! It is a present tense, about the present. "I have eaten breakfast already" has implications for the present - ' I don't need to eat breakfast again' or' I'm not hungry.' "I ate breakfast at 9AM" has no implications for the present - it is simply a record of when things happened.

American speakers of English often confuse the present perfect and the simple past. Fore example, and American teacher may ask 'Did you do your homework?" which is ungrammatical and technically meaningless, instead of "Have you done your homework?" which has present implication.

It is worth noting that the simple past may be used with present implication - "We (Chinese) invented fireworks." The present implication is that the Chinese are important people with great cultural depth. This si a world away from "The Chinese have invented fireworks" which is not grammatically correct given what we know about fireworks.

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@HairyScot - I totally agree with you that 'I've got' has exactly the same meaning as 'I have' (and that's where you'll find it in the dictionary) and that porsche has got it wrong here.

But 'I've got' is mainly used in informal spoken English, where we don't usually worry about redundancy. In fact many linguists say that redundancy actually helps comprehension in spoken language . And I still argue that 'I've got a new car' is easier to say then 'I have a new car' - it involves less mouth movement. In spoken English 'have got' is simply more natural (as MWDEU says - link below).

You could use exactly the same argument about 'Ive got to', and 'I have to' - but I imagine there is an equally good reason why we often say 'I've got to'.

What is more important? Worrying about a little harmless redundancy, or using good old idiomatic English? It was good enough for Jane Austen, Lord Byron and Lewis Carroll after all.

http://books.google.com/books?id=2yJusP0vrdgC&a...

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@Hairy Scot ... I don't think anyone disagrees that "I hav" is good and proper. What I'v found is that most folks will answer in the same way the frain was asked ... "Do you hav the book?" will likely be answered with "Yes, I hav it or yes, I do." OTOH, "You'v got the book? ... Yea, I'v got it." As I said before, benoting "gotten" helps to clear up whether one means "have" or "received".

@blazey ... What are yu smokin'? "Did you do your homework?" is not "ungrammatical" nor is it any less clear than "Have you done your homework?"

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I've got the world on a string, sitting on a rainbow

I've got a lovely bunch of coconuts.

I've got a golden ticket!

Have you?

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