Submitted by joni  •  February 17, 2005

statement

Which statement is correct?

1. The patient has never undergone a colonoscopy.

2. The patient has never underwent a colonoscopy.

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The following sentences are both correct:

"The patient has never undergone a colostomy."

"The patient never underwent a colostomy."

One or the other may sound better to you in your context.

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Think of a simpler example:

"I have never gone to see her new house."

Or,

"I never went to see her new house."

"To undergo" follows essentially the same format as "To go."

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Yes, as Speedwell says, both "has never undergone" and "never underwent" are gramatically correct, but they are not semantically equal.

Speedwell is right that undergo has the same forms of go: go, went, gone. So...in the past you'd say underwent, but if you are suggesting that the patient will likely be undergoing a colostomy, even though they haven't in the past, you would use "has never undergone."

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However, the "has" should not be present in the second example. Speedwell and CQ did not include it in their responses; I just thought I should point that out.

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how to use word 'had' , 'has' ,'had been' and 'has been'??

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