Submitted by marta • August 31, 2004
Why does ‘not’ in ‘you’d better not go there’ stands separately after ‘had better’ phrase but forms ‘hadn’t’ in the question:’Hadn’t you better go now?’ I see no logic here...
September 3, 2004, 5:28am
Maybe this lack of logic results from sb's mistake or not knowing proper grammar...
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September 16, 2004, 6:00pm
Ummm...maybe because one means "Don't go" and the other means "Go." Meaning - the two uses have nothing to do with each other.
September 18, 2004, 12:00am
Are you serious?the reason the had and not are seperate is because they are meant to be.Had better not - a threat saying that one should not do something if he does not want something to happen to himHadn't you - improper grammar "had not you" ????I suppose it means you should
you should vs. you should not
two different meanings.you tell me why the not is not next to the had.:)
September 19, 2004, 8:13am
Ben, if your best answer to a grammar question is essentially, "because that's the way it IS, dammit, and if you disagree, then up yours," then maybe you should reconsider posting.
September 23, 2004, 2:20am
Well in the first 'not' negates the action as in 'not going' 'not walking' while in the second is the negative form of a past tense event. 'To have had' or 'To not have'
I think 'shouldn't you go now?' would be more logical.
August 31, 2004, 7:50am
Perhaps there is some logic to it, but I'd have to sit down and think about it some more. Language isn't always logical, in any case; nor should it be.
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